MCQs in Solid State Devices Part V

(Last Updated On: December 8, 2017)

Solid State Devices - MCQs Part V

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 5 of the Series in Solid State Devices/Circuits as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

  • MCQs in Semiconductor Fundamentals
  • MCQs in Transistor Components
  • MCQs in Circuit Analysis and Design
  • MCQs in Special Services (Photo Electric, Photo voltaic)

The Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Solid State Devices MCQs
PART 1: MCQs from Number 1 – 50                        Answer key: PART I
PART 2: MCQs from Number 51 – 100                   Answer key: PART II
PART 3: MCQs from Number 101 – 150                 Answer key: PART III
PART 4: MCQs from Number 151 – 200                 Answer key: PART IV
PART 5: MCQs from Number 201 – 250                 Answer key: PART V
PART 6: MCQs from Number 251 – 300                 Answer key: PART VI

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 5 of the Series

201. Which of the following is considered a unipolar device?

  • A. Capacitor
  • B. Inductor
  • C. FET
  • D. BJT

202. Who invented the feedback amplifier in 1928?

  • A. Henry Brattain
  • B. Mark Twain
  • C. Harold Black
  • D. Bell Labs

203. The arrow in semiconductor symbol

  • A. Always points towards the P region and away from the N region
  • B. Always points towards the N region and away from the P region
  • C. Is not a significant symbol
  • D. Always points toward the PN junction

204. If the input power of a half wave rectifier has a frequency of 400 Hertz, then the ripple frequency will be equal to _____.

  • A. 800 Hertz
  • B. 200 Hertz
  • C. 100 Hertz
  • D. 400 Hertz

205. If the input frequency of a full-wave rectifier is 400 Hertz, the ripple frequency will be ________.

  • A. Twice as great as the input frequency
  • B. Equal to the input frequency divided by two
  • C. Quadruple of the input frequency
  • D. Equal to a quarter of its input frequency

206. What is also called as the conventional amplifier?

  • A. Common-collector circuit
  • B. Emitter follower circuit
  • C. Common base circuit
  • D. Common emitter circuit

207. Which of the following is true about the emitter follower circuits?

  • A. The output signal is 180º out of phase with the input signal
  • B. The output signal is in phase with the input signal
  • C. The input signal is always equal to the output signal
  • D. An emitter follower circuit is equivalent to a common emitter connection

208. The equation for JFET’s transconductance.

  • A. gm = ΔIc/ΔVGS
  • B. gm = IG/VG
  • C. gm = VGS/Ic
  • D. gm = Ic/VDS

209. another name for a light activated diode (LAD) is

  • A. IR emitter
  • B. LED
  • C. Photodiode
  • D. LCD

210. The semiconductor device that radiate light or utilize light are called

  • A. Active devices
  • B. Photoelectric devices
  • C. Optoelectronic devices
  • D. Passive devices

211. Structural category of a semiconductor diodes can be either

  • A. Electrolytic and point contact
  • B. Junction and point contact
  • C. Electrolytic and vacuum
  • D. Vacuum and gaseous

212. Zener diodes can be primarily classified as

  • A. Forward and reverse biased
  • B. Varactor and rectifying
  • C. Voltage regulation and voltage reference
  • D. Gaseous and hot-carrier

213. The principal characteristics of a tunnel diode.

  • A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
  • B. A negative resistance region
  • C. A very high PIV device
  • D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

214. A special type of semiconductor diode which varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminal varies.

  • A. Varactor diode
  • B. Point contact diode
  • C. Zener diode
  • D. Silicon controlled rectifier

215. The maximum forward current in a junction diode is limited by its

  • A. Peak inverse voltage
  • B. Maximum forward voltage
  • C. Leakage current
  • D. Junction temperature

216. What are the three terminals of a FET?

  • A. Gate, source and drain
  • B. Plate, cathode and grid
  • C. Gate source and battery
  • D. Input, output and ground

217. When a transistor is fully saturated,

  • A. The emitter current is at its minimum value
  • B. The transistor alpha is at its maximum value
  • C. The beta of the transistor is at minimal value
  • D. The collector current is at its maximum value

218. A FET without a channel and no current occurs with zero gate voltage is

  • A. Enhancement-mode FET
  • B. Depletion-mode FET
  • C. CMOS
  • D. Metal-oxide transistor

219. Which of the items below is a special precaution necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?

  • A. They have fragile leads that it might break off
  • B. The are light sensitive
  • C. The are susceptible to damage and static charges
  • D. They have micro welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage

220. A datasheet gives these JFET values;  IDSS = 20 mA and pinch-off voltage is 5 volts. What is the gate-source cut-off voltage?

  • A. 15 volts
  • B. 10 volts
  • C. -5 volts
  • D. 5 volts

221. What is the dc resistance of the JFET in the ohmic region if the drain to source current at gate shorted is equal to 20 mA and the pinch off voltage is 5 volts?

  • A. 300 Ω
  • B. 250 Ω
  • C. 1 kΩ
  • D. 100 Ω

222. Suppose a JFET has IDSS = 7 mA and VGS(off) = -3 V. calculate the drain current for a gate-source voltage of -1V.

  • A. 3.1 mA
  • B. 0.455 A
  • C. 4.45 mA
  • D. 31.2 mA

223. What are often called square law devices?

  • A. Transistors
  • B. Diodes
  • C. SCRs
  • D. JFETs

224. Equivalent of transistor at saturation in JFETs is _______?

  • A. Breakdown
  • B. Constant-current
  • C. Pinch-off
  • D. Ohmic

225. When a JFET is cut-off, the depletion layers are

  • A. Touching
  • B. Separated
  • C. Very far apart
  • D. Close together

226. The voltage that turns on an enhancement-mode device is the

  • A. Gate-source cut-off voltage
  • B. Pinch off voltage
  • C. Threshold voltage
  • D. Knee voltage

227. Depletion–mode MOSFET acts mostly as

  • A. A JFET
  • B. A voltage source
  • C. A resistor
  • D. Enhancement-mode MOSFET

228. JFET’s input impedance is

  • A. Approaches unity
  • B. Approaches zero
  • C. Approaches infinity
  • D. Is unpredictable

229. The current gain of an emitter follower circuit is

  • A. High
  • B. Low
  • C. Moderate
  • D. Very low

230. The drift transistor has a high frequency cut off

  • A. Due to the resistance of the base area
  • B. Since high collector voltage can be used
  • C. Due to its low inherent internal capacitance and low electron transmit time through the base
  • D. Due to the large area

231. The maximum operating frequency of a transistor should be ________ percent of the frequency cut-off of the transistor to ensure best performance.

  • A. 100
  • B. 20
  • C. 80
  • D. 50

232. When transistor applications call for a temperature operating condition which exceeds 185ºF, which element is most suitable?

  • A. Gallium
  • B. Antimony
  • C. Silicon
  • D. Impossible to operate transistor above 185ºF

233. What is the most important factor of a power transistor?

  • A. Output resistance
  • B. Heat dissipation
  • C. Input voltage
  • D. Output parameter

234. When the electron transmit time through the base region is very short, this

  • A. Creates a higher potential barrier
  • B. Makes the transistor unable to amplify its signal
  • C. Provides higher cut-off frequency
  • D. Provides a zener effect

235. When the transistors are used in video amplifiers, its main limitation is

  • A. Low peak voltage
  • B. Poor frequency response
  • C. Low peak current
  • D. Poor filtering of signals

236. Impedance matching in circuit is important for _______ transfer of energy.

  • A. Minimum
  • B. Enough
  • C. Maximum
  • D. Limited

237. An amplifier has an output power of 3 watts. Determine the power output level with reference to 1 mW.

  • A. 34.77 dBm
  • B. 40 dBm
  • C. -30 dBm
  • D. -40 dBm

238. A unijunction transistor is a three terminal consisting of ______ semiconductor layers.

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

239. It is the process by which atoms are constantly losing and regaining free electrons.

  • A. Ionization
  • B. Covalent bond
  • C. Recombination
  • D. Parasitism

240. Termed as unwanted oscillation that may occur in most any type of circuits, oscillator, amplifier, power supply, receiver and transmitters

  • A. White noise
  • B. Parasitic oscillations
  • C. Ripple
  • D. Pulsating dc signal

241. Which of the items below describes an RF amplifier which will amplify a weak signal voltage in relatively the same proportion as it will amplify a stronger signal voltage?

  • A. Class A amplifier
  • B. Linear amplifier
  • C. Non-linear amplifier
  • D. Inverting amplifier

242. Its maximum amount of reverse voltage which can be applied on a diode before breakdown point is reached.

  • A. Zener voltage
  • B. Peak inverse voltage
  • C. Breakdown voltage
  • D. Threshold voltage

243. It refers to any of the over 100 different substances which have never been separated into simpler substances by chemical means and which alone or in combination constitute all matter.

  • A. Elements
  • B. Atom
  • C. Holes
  • D. Electrons

244. It is also known as a solid state lamp which utilizes the fall of an electron from the conduction level to the valence level to develop an energy release in the form of heat or light.

  • A. LCD
  • B. LED
  • C. Photodiode
  • D. Photoconductive cell

245. Which of the items below is not true with α of a transistor?

  • A. It is the current gain of a common-base configuration
  • B. It is the ratio of the change in collector current to the change in emitter current
  • C. It is usually having a value of unity in some approximations
  • D. It is the ratio of the change in collector current to the change in base current.

246. Present atomic theories place the mass and positive charge of an atom in a central nucleus composed of protons and

  • A. Holes
  • B. Core
  • C. Neutrons
  • D. Magnetron

247. The _________ as fundamental particle is considered as a bundle of radiant energy or light, the amount energy being related to the frequency.

  • A. Protons
  • B. LED
  • C. Photons
  • D. Comet

248. Electron emitted by the mechanical impact of an ion striking a surface is called

  • A. Primary electrons
  • B. Secondary electrons
  • C. Moderately doped electrons
  • D. Polarized charge

249. The break up of nuclei into nuclear fragments that are themselves nuclei is called

  • A. Fission
  • B. Isotope
  • C. Neutrino
  • D. Atom

250. What particles are of zero charge and zero mass?

  • A. Fusion
  • B. Neutrino
  • C. Fission
  • D. Isotopes

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

credit: © 2014
MCQs in Solid State Devices Part V
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