MCQs in Engineering Materials Part III

(Last Updated On: December 8, 2017)

MCQs in Engineering Materials Part 3

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 3 of the Series in Engineering Materials as one of the General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS) topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including past Board Questions in General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS) field.

Online Questions and Answers in Engineering Materials Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Engineering Materials MCQs
PART 1: MCQs from Number 1 – 50                        Answer key: PART I
PART 2: MCQs from Number 51 – 100                   Answer key: PART II
PART 3: MCQs from Number 101 – 150                 Answer key: PART III
PART 4: MCQs from Number 151 – 200                 Answer key: PART IV
PART 5: MCQs from Number 201 – 250                 Answer key: PART V
PART 6: MCQs from Number 251 – 300                 Answer key: PART VI
PART 7: MCQs from Number 301 – 350                 Answer key: PART VII

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part III of the Series

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

  • A. Cracking
  • B. Pitting
  • C. Cavitation
  • D. Erosion

102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

  • A. Dezincification
  • B. Graphitization
  • C. Stabilization
  • D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

  • A. Expoliation
  • B. Corrosion fatigue
  • C. Scaping
  • D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

  • A. Stray current corrosion
  • B. Microbiological corrosion
  • C. Filiform corrosion
  • D. Fretting corrosion

105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 µm) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

  • A. Stray current corrosion
  • B. Microbiological corrosion
  • C. Filiform corrosion
  • D. Fretting corrosion

106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

  • A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conduction of electricity.
  • B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
  • C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.
  • D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______ percent.

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 1

108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

  • A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
  • B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
  • C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
  • D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

  • A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel
  • B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
  • C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
  • D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon steel.

  • A. 5
  • B. 6
  • C. 10
  • D. 15

111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

  • A. Casting
  • B. Molding
  • C. Forming
  • D. All of the choices

112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

  • A. Water-cooled metal cavities
  • B. machined metal holding blocks
  • C. Ejection mechanism
  • D. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?

  • A. Ductile iron
  • B. Wrought iron
  • C. Gray iron
  • D. White iron

114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-impregnated glass stands through a die?

  • A. Continuous pultrusion
  • B. Bulk molding
  • C. Vacuum bag forming
  • D. Resin transfer moulding

115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and acids?

  • A. Alkaline
  • B. Alkydes
  • C. Alcocids
  • D. Aldehyde

116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

  • A. 13XX
  • B. 23XX
  • C. 25XX
  • D. 31XX

117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?

  • A. 13XX
  • B. 31XX
  • C. 23XX
  • D. 12XX

118. What does AISI stands for?

  • A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries
  • B. American Institute of Steel Industries
  • C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
  • D. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. What does SAE stands for?

  • A. Society of Automotive Engineers
  • B. Society of American Engineers
  • C. Society of Architects and Engineers
  • D. Society of Alloy Engineers

120. What does ASTM stands for?

  • A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials
  • B. American Society for Testing and Materials
  • C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
  • D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

  • A. 12 % to 18 %
  • B. 10 % to 12 %
  • C. 16 % to 20 %
  • D. 20 % to 24 %

122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

  • A. 600oC to 1100oC
  • B. 1000oC to 1500oC
  • C. 1100oC to 2000oC
  • D. 200oC to 800oC

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:

  • A. Molybdenum
  • B. Tungsten
  • C. Cobalt
  • D. Chromium

124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

  • A. 0.10
  • B. 0.20
  • C. 0.30
  • D. 0.40

125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

  • A. 0.15 to 0.30
  • B. 0.05 to 0.15
  • C. 0.30 to 0.45
  • D. 0.45 to 0.60

126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

  • A. 1 to 5
  • B. 5 to 10
  • C. 11 to 14
  • D. 14 to 18

127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

  • A. cold harden
  • B. stress harden
  • C. cool-temperature
  • D. strain harden

128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?

  • A. 4 to 8
  • B. 9 to 10
  • C. 11 to 17
  • D. 17 to 21

129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard?

  • A. Caburizing
  • B. Casehardening
  • C. Annealing
  • D. Surfacehardening

130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?

  • A. Malleability
  • B. Hardenability
  • C. Spheroidability
  • D. Rigidity

131. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

  • A. 1000o F
  • B. 1333o F
  • C. 1666o F
  • D. 1222o F

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.

  • A. 770o C
  • B. 550o C
  • C. 660o C
  • D. 440o C

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve?

  • A. Pearlite
  • B. Bainite
  • C. Austenite
  • D. Martensite

134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670o F?

  • A. Beta iron
  • B. Gamma iron
  • C. Delta iron
  • D. Alpha iron

135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

  • A. Nitriding
  • B. Flame hardening
  • C. Precipitaion hardening
  • D. Carburizing

136. What is the chief ore of tin?

  • A. Cassiterite
  • B. Bauxite
  • C. Ilmanite
  • D. Galena

137. What is the chief ore of zinc?

  • A. Cassiterite
  • B. Bauxite
  • C. Sphalerite
  • D. Ilmanite

138. What is the chief ore of titanium?

  • A. Sphalerite
  • B. Ilmanite
  • C. Bauxite
  • D. Cassiterite

139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

  • A. Bauxite
  • B. Rutile
  • C. Galera
  • D. Sphalerite

140. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:

  • A. copper and zinc
  • B. aluminum and iron
  • C. copper and aluminum
  • D. zinc and nickel

141. The term “bronze” is used to designate any alloy containing:

  • A. copper and zinc
  • B. copper and aluminum
  • C. copper and nickel
  • D. copper and tin

142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit indicates?

  • A. The purity of aluminum
  • B. The identity of the alloy
  • C. The alloy group
  • D. The strength of the alloy

143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?

  • A. The purity of aluminum
  • B. The identity of the alloy
  • C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
  • D. The alloy group

144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what condition of the alloy?

  • A. As fabricated
  • B. Strain hardened
  • C. Annealed
  • D. Artificially aged

145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:

  • A. Zinc alloys
  • B. Magnesium alloys
  • C. Manganese alloys
  • D. Aluminum alloys

146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?

  • A. 25000 lbf/in2
  • B. 35000 lbf/in2
  • C. 50000 lbf/in2
  • D. 100000 lbf/in2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

  • A. less than 0.1 percent
  • B. exactly 0.1 percent
  • C. more than 0.1 percent
  • D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

  • A. 10 %
  • B. 14 %
  • C. 18 %
  • D. 22 %

149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60 % copper and 40 % zinc is called ______.

  • A. yellow brass
  • B. red brass
  • C. Muntz metal
  • D. white brass

150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

  • A. 20 %
  • B. 15 %
  • C. 20 %
  • D. 25 %

Complete List of MCQs in General Engineering and Applied Science per topic

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