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MCQ in Physics Part 3 | ECE Board Exam

(Last Updated On: July 17, 2021)

MCQ in Physics Part 3 | ECE Board Exam

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 3 of the Series in Physics as one of the General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS) topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including past Board Questions in General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS), Physics Books, Journals and other Physics References.

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 3 of the Series

MCQ in Physics Part 2 | ECE Board Exam

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

101. Angular momentum is the product of ________.

A. moment of inertia and linear speed

B. moment of area and angular speed

C. moment of inertia and angular speed

D. moment of area and angular speed

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of the system remains constant “. This statement is known as:

A. Conservation of energy

B. Conservation of impulse

C. Conservation of linear momentum

D. Conservation of angular momentum

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?

A. Those particles whose angular speed changes

B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant

C. All particles

D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is distributed about the axis.

A. moment of mass

B. moment of area

C. moment of inertia

D. torque

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.

A. inertia

B. mass moment

C. torque

D. moment

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in _______.

A. unstable equilibrium

B. stable equilibrium

C. rotational equilibrium

D. translational equilibrium

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex.

B. A cone balanced on its base.

C. A cone on its side.

D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex.

B. A cone balanced on its base.

C. A cone on its side.

D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

109. A device that transmits force or torque is called _______.

A. mechanical tool

B. machine

C. axle

D. wedge

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?

A. stable equilibrium

B. neutral equilibrium

C. unstable equilibrium

D. translational equilibrium

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in _______.

A. unstable equilibrium

B. stable equilibrium

C. rotational equilibrium

D. translational equilibrium

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?

A. lever

B. incline plane

C. hydraulic press

D. wedge

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?

A. It is always inside the object.

B. It is always outside the object.

C. It is always at its geometric center.

D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?

A. Density

B. Weight density

C. Relative density

D. Specific density

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?

A. Density

B. Weight density

C. Relative density

D. Specific density

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?

A. 1000 kg/m3

B. 62.4 lb/ft3

C. 10 g/cm3

D. 9.81 kN/m3

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?

A. density

B. weight density

C. viscosity

D. specific gravity

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

118. What is another term for specific gravity?

A. Density

B. Weight density

C. Relative density

D. Viscosity

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level?

A. 1.042 bar

B. 1.021 bar

C. 1.013 bar

D. 1.037 bar

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle

C. Archimedes principle

D. Torricelli’s theorem

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle

C. Archimedes principle

D. Reynold’s principle

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle

C. Archimedes principle

D. Reynold’s principle

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.

A. pressure of a liquid

B. density of a liquid

C. Reynold’s number

D. viscosity of liquid

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.

A. frequency

B. oscillation

C. period

D. amplitude

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?

A. Amplitude

B. Frequency

C. Period

D. Oscillation

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.

A. directly proportional to

B. inversely proportional to

C. equal to

D. independent of

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?

A. Damped harmonic motion

B. Pendulum

C. Simple harmonic motion

D. Damped harmonic oscillation

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?

A. Force

B. Period

C. Frequency

D. Friction

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck without producing a reaction force on its pivot.

A. center of gravity

B. center of oscillation

C. axis of oscillation

D. center of mass

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?

A. Sound

B. Resonance

C. Wave

D. Beat

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to one of its natural frequencies of oscillation?

A. Beat

B. Resonance

C. Doppler effect

D. Shock wave

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed exceeds that of sound?

A. Shock wave

B. Mach wave

C. Beat wave

D. Sonic wave

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its source and an observer?

A. Superposition principle

B. Shock effect

C. Doppler effect

D. Wave motion

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in which the waves travel?

A. Longitudinal waves

B. Transverse waves

C. Wave motions

D. Shock waves

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.

A. 20 Hz

B. 30 Hz

C. 40 Hz

D. 50 Hz

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.

A. 10,000 Hz

B. 20,000 Hz

C. 30,000 Hz

D. 40,000 Hz

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?

A. Longitudinal waves

B. Transverse waves

C. Wave motions

D. Shock waves

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

138. “When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Mach principle

B. Doppler principle

C. Principle of superposition

D. Wave motion principle

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of either of the original waves?

A. Local interference

B. Ordinary interference

C. Constructive interference

D. Destructive interference

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either of the original waves?

A. Local interference

B. Ordinary interference

C. Constructive interference

D. Destructive interference

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called ________.

A. beats

B. frequency

C. gain

D. intensity

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.

A. 10 W/m2

B. 0.1 W/m2

C. 1 W/m2

D. 0.01 W/m2

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ______ W/m2?

A. 10^-10

B. 10^-11

C. 10^-12

D. 10^-13

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 0.1

D. 1.5

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________.

A. Wave factor

B. Supersonic number

C. Sonic number

D. Mach number

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Principle of conservation of attraction

B. Principle of conservation of charge

C. Coulomb’s law

D. Principle of superconductivity

View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

147. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Coulomb’s law

B. Kirchhoff’s law

C. Lenz’s law

D. Faraday’s law

View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object would experience a force?

A. Energy field

B. Electric field

C. magnetic field

D. Force field

View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume associated with it.

A. capacitance

B. polar energy

C. energy density

D. dielectric distance

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential difference between the plates?

A. Resistance

B. Inductance

C. Capacitance

D. Potential difference

View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Online Questions and Answers in Physics Series

Following is the list of practice exam test questions in this brand new series:

College Physics MCQs
PART 1: MCQ from Number 1 – 50                        Answer key: PART 1
PART 2: MCQ from Number 51 – 100                   Answer key: PART 2
PART 3: MCQ from Number 101 – 150                 Answer key: PART 3
PART 4: MCQ from Number 151 – 200                 Answer key: PART 4
PART 5: MCQ from Number 201 – 250                 Answer key: PART 5
PART 6: MCQ from Number 251 – 300                 Answer key: PART 6
PART 7: MCQ from Number 301 – 350                 Answer key: PART 7
PART 8: MCQ from Number 351 – 400                 Answer key: PART 8
PART 9: MCQ from Number 401 – 450                 Answer key: PART 9
PART 10: MCQ from Number 451 – 500                 Answer key: PART 10

Complete List of MCQs in General Engineering and Applied Science per topic

Series of MCQ in General Engineering and Applied Science

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