MCQ in Environmental Engineering Part 1 | Engineering Board Exam

This is the Multiple Choice Questions Part 1 of the Series in Environmental Engineering (Environmental Science) as one of the General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS) topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including past Board Questions in General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS) field.

Start Practice Exam Test Questions Part 1 of the Series

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

1. Which system of collection of sewage a dry system?

A. conservancy system

B. biological digestion

C. incineration

D. water carriage system

2. After how many years, night soil gives good quality manure?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 10

D. 14

3. Conservancy system is a highly unhygienic system, causing insanitary conditions.

A. true

B. false

4. Which of the following is not correct regarding conservancy system?

A. high maintenance cost

B. highly unhygienic system

C. independent of labour

D. chances of epidemic

5. Which system of collection of sewage is called a dry system?

A. conservancy system

B. biological digestion

C. incineration

D. water carriage system

6. ______ is a method where water is used as a medium for the flow of sewage from its production of the treatment unit.

A. conservancy system

B. biological digestion

C. ) incineration

D. d) water carriage system

7. The water carriage system is a hygienic system without any bad smell.

A. true

B. false

8. Which of the following is correct regarding water carriage system?

A. chances of the epidemic is there

B. foul smell is produced

C. does not cause pollution

D. highly dependent on labours

9. Which of the following is an advantage of a separate water carriage system?

A. get choked easily

B. difficult to clean the sewer

C. two sets of sewer are used

D. the more uniform character of sewage

10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a separate water carriage system?

A. low installation charge

B. no loads on treatment units

C. lesser air contact with small sized sewer

D. provision of the automatic flushing tank is not required

11. provides only one sewer to carry both foul sewage and rainwater.

A. separate water carriage system

B. combined water carriage system

C. partially combined water carriage system

D. conservancy system

12. Which of the following is an advantage of the combined water carriage system?

A. there is more air in large sewer

B. there is the inclusion of storm water

C. there is difficulties in ventilation of large sewer

D. overflowing of sewer

13. Which of the following is incorrect regarding partially combined water carriage system?

A. the sewers are of reasonable size

B. there is choking of sewer

C. the storm water increases load on treatment units

D. the storm water increases the cost of pumping

14. The choice of combined water carriage system does not depend on

A. space consideration

B. even rainfall pattern

C. steep topography

D. pumping requirements

15. is the flow through sewers available during non-rainfall period.

A. gradually varied flow

B. rapidly varied flow

C. dry weather flow

D. storm water flow

16. is the additional flow occurring during rainy season.

A. gradually varied flow

B. rapidly varied flow

C. dry weather flow

D. storm waterflow

17. Which flow is also called as sanitary sewage?

A. dry weather flow

B. storm weather flow

C. uniform flow

D. non uniform flow

18. Which of the following factor does not affect the dry weather flow?

A. rate of water supply

B. temperature conditions

C. population growth

D. infiltration of ground water

19. The sewer should be designed for a minimum of ____ liters of wastewater per capita per day.

A. 50

B. 100

C. 150

D. 1000

20. is the process in which ground water infiltrate into the sewers.

A. exfiltration

B. infiltration

C. filtration

D. osmosis

21. _____ is the process which indicates the flow of wastewater from the sewer into the ground.

A. exfiltration

B. infiltration

C. filtration

D. osmosis

22. The peaking factor is defined by

A. peak flow *average flow

B. peak flow –average flow

C. peak flow +average flow

D. peak flow /average flow

23. The peaking factor is directly proportional to the population of the city.

A. true

B. false

24. The wet weather flow is also known by

A. minimum sewage flow

B. maximum sewage flow

C. storm waterflow

D. average rate of flow

25. Which of the following surface has a maximum Kuichling’s impermeability factor?

A. gravel road

B. watertight roof surface

C. unpaved surface

D. macadamized roadways

26. The expression of the Chezy’s formula is given by

A. v = c/rs

B. v = crs²

C. v = c (rs)^1/2

D. v = c/ (rs)^1/2

27. Which of the following is the expression of the Manning’s formula?

A. v = r^1/3 s^1/2/ n

B. v = r^2/3 s²/ n

C. v = r^2/3 s^1/2/ n

D. v = r^2/3 s^1/2

28.  ______ is the velocity at which the solid matter in sewage remained in suspended form.

A. settling velocity

B. self-cleansing velocity

C. mean velocity

D. non scouring velocity

29. Primary treatment of sewage consists of removal of

A. large suspended organic solids

B. oil and grease

C. sand and grit

D. floating materials

30. The most widely used pumps for sewage lifting is

A. centrifugal pump

B. reciprocating pump

C. pneumatic ejector

D. air pressure pump

31. Drop manholes are generally provided in sewers for

A. industrial areas

B. large township

C. hilly townships

D. cities in plains

32. The pollution zones in the river are divided into how many types?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

33. In which pollution zone of the river, growth of algae reappears?

A. zone of degradation

B. zone of recovery

C. zone of active decomposition

D. zone of clean water

34. In which pollution zone of the river, the dissolved oxygen reduced to 0?

A. zone of degradation

B. zone of recovery

C. zone of clean water

D. zone of active decomposition

35. Which is the third zone of pollution in the river?

A. zone of recovery

B. zone of degradation

C. zone of clean water

D. zone of active decomposition

36. What is yellow curve represents in the following figure?

A. deoxygenation curve

B. reoxygenation curve

C. oxygen sag curve

D. equilibrium concentration of oxygen

37. Which of the following is represented b the green curve in the above figure?

A. deoxygenation curve

B. reoxygenation curve

C. oxygen sag curve

D. equilibrium concentration of oxygen

38. The maximum deficiency of dissolved oxygen is represented by

A. dotted blue line

B. green curve

C. yellow curve

D. violet curve

39. Which of the following represents the oxygen sag curve in the following figure?

A. dotted blue line

B. green curve

C. yellow curve

D. red curve

40. The reoxygenation constant at temperature ‘T’ is expressed by

A. k_rt = k_r20 (1.016)^t

B. k _rt = k _r20 (1.047) ^t-20

C. k _rt = k _r20 (1.016)^t-20

D. k _rt = k _r20 (1.047)^t

41. The minimum spacing between the bars on fine screen is

A. 0.3 mm

B. 0.9 mm

C. 1.5 mm

D. 0.5 mm

42. The spacing between the bars in racks is

A. 30 mm

B. 50 mm

C. 70 mm

D. 90 mm

43. Screens are inclined to the direction of flow to

A. increase the flow velocity

B. increase the opening area

C. decrease the flow velocity

D. increase the head loss

44. The maximum spacing between the bars in medium screen is

A. 40 mm

B. 50 mm

C. 70 mm

D. 90 mm

45. What is the maximum capacity of medium screen in collecting solids?

A. 30 L

B. 40 L

C. 50 L

D. 90 L

46. The design velocity of flow of a detritus tank is

A. 1 m/sec

B. 1.2 m/sec

C. 0.9 m/sec

D. 0.5 m/sec

47. Which of the following device is used for the removal of oil and grease?

A. skimming tank

B. grit chambers

C. tube settlers

D. flocculator

48. How many types of settling are there in the sedimentation tank?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

49. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A. zone settling

B. compression settling

C. hindered settling

D. discrete settling

50. The settling velocity of spherical particle is given by

A. Darcy Weisbach equation

B. Hazen and William equation

C. stokes equation

D. Bernoulli’s equation

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