MCQ in Navigational Aids and Radar Systems Part 3 | ECE Board Exam

This is the Multiple Choice Questions in Navigational Aids and Radar Systems Part 3 of the Series as one of the Electronics Systems and Technologies Examination topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Systems and Technologies scope, Electronics Communications Books, Journals and other Electronics Communications References.

MCQ Topic Outline included in ECE Board Exam Syllabi

• MCQ in Electronic Aids to Radio Navigation
• MCQ in Distance Measuring Equipment
• MCQ in Automatic Direction Finder
• MCQ in Instrument Landing System
• MCQ in Microwave Landing System
• MCQ in Ground Proximity Warning System
• MCQ in Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
• MCQ in Navigation by using Satellites
• MCQ in GPS, GLONASS, Galileo Positioning System
• MCQ in Radar
• MCQ in Radar Frequency Bands
• MCQ in Radar Functions and Roles
• MCQ in Radar Parameters: PRT, PRF, the Duty Cycle, Average Power
• MCQ in Doppler Effect
• MCQ in Radar Beacons
• MCQ in Range Equations

Start Practice Exam Test Questions Part 2 of the Series

⇐ MCQ in Navigational Aids and Radar Systems Part 2 | ECE Board Exam

101. The movable areas of a wing-form that control or affect the roll of an aircraft by working opposite one another.

A. Rudder

B. Tarmac

C. Aileron

D. Escalator

102. Yaw is generated when the ailerons are used. The lifting wing generates more drag, causing an airplane to yaw toward it.

A. Converse yaw

B. Adverse yaw

C. Inverse yaw

D. None of the above

103. A cockpit control that changes the pitch of a helicopter’s rotor blades; used in climbing or descending.

A. Climb pitch

B. Collective pitch

C. Helipitch

D. None of the above

104. The movable part of a vertical airfoil which controls the yaw of an aircraft; the fixed part being the FIN.

A. Rudder

B. Tarmac

C. Aileron

D. Escalator

105. A space-based radio positioning, navigation and time transfer system. It provides highly accurate position and velocity information, on a continuous global basis to an unlimited number of users.

A. GPRS

B. GPS

C. ILS

D. DME

106. (1) The angle between the horizontal and the glide path of an aircraft. (2) A tightly-focused radio beam transmitted from the approach end of a runway indicating the minimum approach angle that will clear all obstacles; one component of an instrument landing system (ILS).

A. Glide slope

B. Localizer angle

C. Marker beacon

D. None of the above

107. A maneuver performed moments before landing in which the nose of an aircraft is pitched up to minimize the touchdown rate of speed.

A. Flap

B. Flare

C. Flaperon

D. None of the above

108. A movable, usually hinged airfoil set in the trailing edge of an aircraft wing, designed to increase lift or drag by changing the camber of the wing or used to slow an aircraft during landing by increasing lift.

A. Flap

B. Flare

C. Flaperon

D. None of the above

109. A control surface combining the functions of a flap and an aileron.

A. Flap

B. Flare

C. Flaperon

D. None of the above

110. A rudder-controlled side-to-side [yawing] motion to reduce airspeed, generally prior to landing.

A. Fishtailing

B. Pigtailing

C. Hogtailing

D. None of the above

111. The fixed part of a vertical airfoil that controls the yaw of an aircraft. Sometime referred to as Vertical Stabilizer.

A. FIN

B. Rudder

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

112. The movable part of a horizontal airfoil which controls the pitch of an aircraft.

A. Elevator

B. FIN

C. Rudder

D. Stabilizer

113. The fixed part of a horizontal airfoil that controls the pitch of an aircraft.

A. Elevator

B. FIN

C. Rudder

D. Stabilizer

114. A four-digit number which is dialed into his transponder by a pilot to identify his aircraft to air traffic controllers.

A. Code

B. Squawk

C. Aircraft telephone number

D. None of the above

115. A radio navigation device that determines an aircraft’s distance from a given ground station, as well as its groundspeed and time to/from the station.

A. DME

B. ILS

C. TACAN

D. MLS

116. The resisting force exerted on an aircraft in its line of flight opposite in direction to its motion.

A. Thrust

B. Drag

C. Push

D. Pull

117. The driving force of a propeller in the line of its shaft or the forward force produced in reaction to the gases expelled rearward from a jet or rocket engine.

A. Thrust

B. Drag

C. Push

D. Pull

118. A flight recorder used to record the audio environment in the flight-deck of an aircraft for the purpose of investigation of accidents and incidents.

A. RADAR

B. Blackbox

C. VOR

D. Cockpit Voice Recorder

119. The heading indicator (or HI) is an instrument used in an aircraft to inform the pilot of his heading. It is sometimes referred to by its older name, the

A. VOR

B. Directional gyro

C. DME

D. ILS

120. An all-weather, precision landing system originally intended to replace or supplement the Instrument Landing System (ILS). It has a number of operational advantages, including a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with other nearby airports, excellent performance in all weather, and a small “footprint” at the airports.

A. VAR

B. LORAN-A

C. MLS

D. VOR

121. Which is not a major segment of GPS?

A. User segment

B. Space segment

C. Control segment

D. Satellite segment

122. The six planes of the GPS has how many degrees tilt with respect to the equator?

A. 20

B. 55

C. 75

D. 90

123. As of January 2007, how many GPS satellites are actively broadcasting?

A. 22

B. 24

C. 29

D. 36

124. A type of data from GPS which sends coarse time information along with status information about the satellites.

A. Ephemeris

B. Almanac

C. Navigation message

D. Code

125. A type of data from GPS which contains orbital information that allows the receiver to calculate the position of the satellite.

A. Ephemeris

B. Almanac

C. Navigation message

D. Code

126. How many bits of data do GPS transmits?

A. 36,000

B. 37,500

C. 40,000

D. 45,500

127. The data rate of sending the GPS “Navigation message”?

A. 50 bps

B. 2 kbps

C. 56 kbps

D. 114 kbps

128. Another approach for a precise GPS-based positioning system. In this approach, the determination of the range signal can be resolved to an accuracy of less than 10 centimeters (4 in). This is done by resolving the number of cycles in which the signal is transmitted and received by the receiver. This can be accomplished by using a combination of differential GPS (DGPS) correction data, transmitting GPS signal phase information and ambiguity resolution techniques via statistical tests — possibly with processing in real-time.

A. Relative Kinematic Positioning

B. Dual-frequency Monitoring

C. Carrier-Phase Enhancement

D. None of the above

129. The satellite orbits repeat after 8 days. As each orbit plane contains 8 satellites, there is a non-identical repeat (i.e., another satellite will occupy the same place in the sky) after one sidereal day.

A. GPS

B. GLONASS

C. Galileo

D. Iridium

130. A satellite constellation comprising 30 satellites orbiting at 23,222 km (MEO) with 3 orbital planes and 56-degree inclination.

A. GPS

B. GLONASS

C. Galileo

D. Iridium

131. A LEO constellation orbits have an inclination of 52 degrees. It also does not cover polar areas due to the lower orbital inclination.

A. Globalstar

B. Iridium

C. GLONASS

D. GPS

132. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

133. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of

A. √2

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

134. If the ratio of the antenna diameter to the wavelength in a radar system is high this will result in (indicate the false statement)

A. large maximum range

B. good target discrimination

C. difficult target acquisition

D. increased capture area

135. The radar cross section of a target (indicate the false statement)

A. depends on the frequency used

B. may be reduced by special coating of the target

C. depends on the aspect of a target, if this non-spherical

D. is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets

136. Flat-topped rectangular pulses must be transmitted in radar to (indicate the false statement)

A. allow a good minimum range

B. make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise

C. prevent frequency changes in the magnetron

D. allow accurate range measurements

137. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)

A. make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise

B. make target tracking easier with conical scanning

C. increase the maximum range

D. have no effect on the range resolution

138. The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

A. pulse width

B. pulse repetition frequency

C. pulse interval

D. square root of the peak transmitted power

139. If a return echo arrives after the allocated pulse interval,

A. it will interfere with the operation of the transmitter

B. the receiver might be overloaded

C. it will not be received

D. the target will appear closer than it really is

140. After a target has been acquired, the best scanning system for tracking is

A. nodding

B. spiral

C. conical

D. helical

141. If the target cross section is changing, the best system for accurate tracking is

A. lobe switching

B. sequential lobing

C. conical scanning

D. monopulse

142. The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that

A. it does not give the target velocity

B. it does not give the target range

C. a transponder is required at the target

D. it does not give the target position

143. The A scope displays

A. the target position and range

B. the target range, but not position

C. the target position, but not range

D. neither range nor position, but not only velocity

144. The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the false statement)

A. moving-target plotting on the PPI

B. the MTI system

C. FM radar

D. CW radar

145. The coho in MTI radar operates at the

A. intermediate frequency

B. transmitted frequency

C. received frequency

D. pulse repetition frequency

146. The function of the quartz delay line in an MTI radar is to

A. help in subtracting a complete scan from the previous scan

B. match the phase of the coho and the stalo

C. match the phase of the coho and the output oscillator

D. delay a sweep so that the next sweep can be subtracted from it

147. A solution to the “blind speed” problem is

A. to change the Doppler frequency

B. to vary the PRF

C. to use monopulse

D. to use MTI

148. Indicate which one of the following applications or advantages of radar beacons is false:

A. Target identification

B. Navigation

C. Very significant extension of the maximum range

D. More accurate tracking of enemy targets

149. Compared with other types of radar, phased array radar has the following advantages (indicate the false statement)

A. very fast scanning

B. ability to track and scan simultaneously

C. circuit simplicity

D. ability to track many targets simultaneously

Complete List of MCQ in Communications Engineering per topic