MCQ in Physical Science Part 3 | Licensure Exam for Teachers 2022

This is the LET Reviewer 2022, Multiple Choice Questions in Physical Science Part 3 as one coverage of Licensure Examinations for Teachers (LET). The exam is divided into two classifications. First is the elementary level exam which covers topics from General Education (GenEd) 40% and Professional Education (ProfEd) 60%. Secondly is the secondary level which covers GenEd 20%, ProfEd 40% and area of specialization 40%. I assume you are looking for a reviewer that will help you achieve your goal to become a professional License teacher very soon. Yes, you are in the right place to make your dream come true. Make sure to familiarize each and every questions to increase the chance of passing the Licensure Examinations for Teachers (LET).

Area of Specialization Coverage

Area of specialization refers to the majorship or the specific field that BSED graduate will handle:

• ENGLISH
• BIOLOGY
• CHEMISTRY
• VALUES
• MATH
• FILIPINO
• SOCIAL STUDIES
• MUSIC, ART, PHYSICAL EDUCATION, and HEALTH or MAPEH
• TECHNOLOGY and LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION
• AGRICULTURE AND FISHERY ARTS

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 3 of the Series

⇐ MCQ in Physical Science Part 2 | Licensure Exam for Teachers 2022

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

101. Which of the following is an organic compound?

A. Baking soda

B. Glucose

C. Limestone

D. Sulfuric acid

102. Which of the following serves as thermal insular in the body?

A. Carbohydrates

B. Fats

C. Nucleic acids

D. Proteins

103. In DNA, which is the correct complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases?

A. AG and CT

B. AA and GG

C. AC and GC

D. AT and GC

104. Which biomolecule is considered the building blocks of tissues and organs?

A. Carbohydrates

B. Lipid

C. Nucleic acid

D. Protein

105. What is the main function of the hormone oxytocin in the body?

A. Controls water secretion by the kidneys

B. Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose

C. Controls blood – glucose level and storage of glycogen

D. Stimulates contraction of the uterine muscles and secretion of milk by the mammary glands

106. The half-life of thorium-234 is 24 days. How much 5g of 234th would be left after 48 days?

A. 0.625 g

B. 1.25 g

C. 2.50 g

D. 3.75 g

107. What happens when there is a loss of an alpha particle from the nucleus?

A. No change in the mass number or atomic number

B. Loss of 4 in the mass number, loss of 2 in the atomic number

C. Loss of 2 in the mass number, loss of 4 in the atomic number

D. No change in the mass number, increase of 1 in the atomic number

108. What is the balanced equation of ⁷⁰₃₁Ga that undergoes beta decay?

A. ⁷⁰₃₁Ga —————> ⁷⁰₃₁X + ⁰₀β

B. ⁷⁰₃₁Ga —————>⁷⁰₃₂X + ⁰_-1β

C. ⁷⁰₃₁Ga —————>⁷⁰₃₁X + ⁰_-1β

D. ⁷⁰₃₁Ga —————> ⁷¹₃₁X + ^-1₀β

109. What is the medical application of the isotope P-32 with a half-life of 4.3 days?

A. Liver imaging

B. Gastrointestinal diagnosis

C. Treatment of leukemia

D. Treatment of hyperthyroidism

110. Which of the following poses a serious obstacle to the development of commercial fusion power plants?

A. Scarcity of deuterium

B. Public concern about safety

C. Dwindling supply of uranium

D. Exceedingly high activation energy

111. A radioisotope is considered a tracer when it used to ___________.

A. kill cancerous tissues

B. Kill bacteria in food

C. Determine the age of artifacts

D. Determine the way plants absorb fertilizers

112. Identify the following quantities as scalar or vector respectively: mass of an object, the number of leaves on a tree, and wind velocity.

A. Scalar, Scalar, Vector

B. Scalar, Vector, Scalar

C. Vector, Scalar, Scalar

D. Vector, Scalar, Vector

113. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. Acceleration

B. Temperature

C. Velocity

D. Weight

114. Which of the following describes a vector quantity?

A. It specifies direction only.

B. It specifies magnitude only.

C. It can be a dimensionless a vector quantity.

D. It specifies both magnitude and direction.

115. A man pushes against the wall with 25 pounds of force. The wall does not move. What is the resultant force?

A. -25 pounds

B. 0 pounds

C. 50 pounds

D. 75 pounds

116. In a coordinate system, a vector is oriented at angle with respect to the x axis. They components of the vector equals the vector’s magnitude multiplied by which trigonometric function?

A. Cos angle

B. Cot angle

C. Sin angle

D. Tan angle

117. An ant on a picnic table travels 30 cm due east, then 25 cm northward and finally 15 cm due west. What is the magnitude of the ant’s displacement relative to its point of origin?

A. 29 cm

B. 58 cm

C. 70 cm

D. 99 cm

118. What will happen to a moving object in the sum of all the forces acting on it is zero?

A. It will accelerate uniformly.

B. It will slow down and stop.

C. It will change the direction of its motion.

D. It will continue moving with constant velocity.

119. Acceleration is always in the direction of the _________.

A. displacement

B. final velocity

C. initial velocity

D. net force

120. A brick slides on the horizontal surface. Which of the following will increase the magnitude of the frictional force on it?

A. Putting a second brick on top

B. Decreasing the mass of the brick

C. Increasing the surface area of contact

D. Decreasing the surface area of contact

121. The potential energy of a body at a certain height is 100 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it when it just touches the surface of the earth is __________.

A. greater than the potential energy

B. less than the potential energy

C. equal to the potential energy

D. cannot be known

122. What happens to the kinetic energy of an object if tit’s speed is doubled?

A. It will be halved.

B. It will be doubled.

C. It will be tripled.

D. It will be quadrupled.

123. What is the type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum when it is at the mean position?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Mechanical energy

C. Potential energy

D. Sound energy

124. A ball is thrown upward into the air with a speed that is greater than terminal speed. On the way up, it slows down and after its speed equal the terminal speed but before it gets to the trajectory ________.

A. it speed up

B. its speed is constant

C. it continues to the slow down

D. its motion becomes jerky

125. When a bullet is fired from a riffle, the force in the riffle is equal to the force on the bullet. Why is it that the energy of the bullet is greater than the energy of the recoiling rifle?

A. Because there is more impulse on the bullet

B. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer time

C. Because the force on the bullet acts for the longer distance

D. Because the bullet’s momentum is greater than that of the rifle

126. Car A has a mass of 1000 kg and the speed of 60 kph while car B has a mass of 200 kg running at a speed of 30 kph. What is the kinetic energy of car A?

A. Half that of car B

B. Equal that of car B

C. Twice that of car B

D. Four times that of car B

127. An object is thrown straight up. Which of the following is TRUE about the sign of work done by the gravitational force while the object moves up and down?

A. Work is zero on the way up, work is zero on the way down.

B. Work is negative on the way up, work is negative on the way down.

C. Work is negative on the way up, work is positive on the way down.

D. Work is positive in the way up, work is negative on the way down.

128. What happens to the kinetic energy of a moving object if the net work done is positive?

A. The kinetic energy remains the same.

B. The kinetic energy increases.

C. The kinetic energy decreases.

D. The kinetic energy is zero.

129. Object A with a mass of 4 kg is lifted vertically 3 m from the ground, object B with a mass of 2 kg is lifted 6 m up. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?

I. Object A has greater potential energy since it is heavier.

II. Object B has greater potential energy since it is lifted to a higher position.

III. Two objects have the same potential energy.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. not enough information given

130. According to the scientific definition of work, pushing a table accomplishes no work unless there is ________.

A. an opposing force

B. a net force greater than zero

C. an applied force greater than its weight

D. movement in the same direction as the force

131. A machine does 2 500 J of work in one minute. What is the power developed by the machine?

A. 21 W

B. 42W

C. 2 500 W

D. 150 000 W

132. To which type of simple machine does a pencil sharpener belong?

A. Inclined plane

B. Lever

C. Pulley

D. Wheel and axel

133. Which of Newton’s law best explains why motorists should always wear seat belts?

A. Law of Inertia

B. Law of Acceleration

C. Law of Interaction

D. Law of Gravitation

134. The same net force is applied to object 1 and object 2. The observed acceleration of the two objects are not the same; object 1 has acceleration three times that of object 2. Which of the following is correct?

A. Object 1 has more friction than object 2.

B. Object 1 has one-third the mass of object 2.

C. Object 1 has three times the mass of object 2.

D. Object 1 has a different, less streamlined shaped than object 2.

135. The law of inertia applies to _______.

A. moving objects

B. objects that are not moving

C. both moving and non-moving objects

D. none of these

136. Which statement is CORRECT about the Law of Conversation of Energy?

A. The total amount of energy is constant.

B. Energy cannot be used faster than it is created.

C. The supply of energy is limited so we must conserve.

D. Energy must be conserved and you are breaking a law if you waste energy.

137. Which of the following can transform electrical energy to mechanical energy?

A. Electric bulb

B. Electric fan

C. Loud speaker

D. Television

138. Celso is making a picture frame. He sticks a nail into a piece of wood and hits the nail with a hammer. Which form of energy is NOT released when the hammer hits the nail?

A. Chemical

B. Kinetic

C. Sound

D. Thermal

139. Butch throws a baseball into the air. It rises, stops when it reaches its greatest height, and the falls back to the ground. At what point is kinetic energy initially converted to potential energy?

A. When the baseball is rising

B. When the baseball is falling

C. Just after the baseball hits the ground

D. While the baseball is stopped in the air

140. Which energy conversation takes place when a toaster is switched on?

A. Chemical to sound

B. Chemical to thermal

C. Electrical to sound

D. Electrical to thermal

141. When coal is burned to produce electricity, the electrical energy produced is less than the potential energy of the coal. Which BEST explains this observation?

A. The amount energy in the coal is not known.

B. As the coil is heated, the molecules move so fast that they are destroyed.

C. Some of the potential energy in the coal is converted into forms of energy other than electricity.

D. Some of the potential energy in the coal requires more intense heat so that can be compared to electricity.

142. What is the TRUE of all combinations of resistors arranged in parallel?

I. Current splits down each leg of the combination.

II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the combination.

III. Resistance is the same for each leg of the combination.

A. I and II only

B. I and II only

C. II and II only

D. I, II and III

143. What is the closed, continuous path through which electrons can flow?

A. Charge

B. Circuit

C. Resistor

D. Voltage

144. What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your feet while scuffing across the rug?

A. Negative

B. Neutral

C. Positive

D. Not enough information given

145. How will you force charge if the distance between the two charge spheres is doubled?

A. The force is doubled.

B. The force is tripled.

C. The force is quadrupled.

D. The force is multiplied eight times.

146. A 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistors are connected in parallel with each other to a battery. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. More current will flow through the 20 ohm resistor.

B. The current flowing through the resistor is the same.

C. The resistor values must be equal for the circuit to work.

D. The potential difference across the two resistors is the same.

147. A new 1.5 V dry cell furnishes 30 A when short-circuited. Find the internal resistance of the cell.

A. 0.05 Ω

B. 0.10 Ω

C. 1.5 Ω

D. 30 Ω

148. If three identical lamps are connected in parallel to A 6 V dry cell, what is the voltage drop across each lamp?

A. 2 V

B. 3 V

C. 6 V

D. 18 V

149. Which of the following describes an electric current?

A. Regulates the movement of electric charge

B. The opposition material offers to the electron flow

C. The electric pressure that causes charged particles to flow

D. The movement of charged particles in the specific direction

150. A 10 W bulb and a 20 W bulb are connected in a series circuit. Which bulb has the more current flowing in it?

A. The 10 W bulb

B. The 20 W bulb

C. Both bulbs have the same current

D. Cannot be determined

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