Electronics Engineering Mastery Test 7: ECE Pre-Board

(Last Updated On: March 25, 2020)

Electronics Engineering Mastery Test 7: ECE Pre-Board

This is 100 items Practice Examinations set 7 in Electronics Engineering composed of previous Board Exams Questions. Read each questions and choices carefully! Choose the best answer. In the actual board, you have to answer 100 items in Electronics Engineering within 5 hours. You have to get at least 70% to pass the subject. Electronics Engineering is 30% of the total 100% Board Rating along with Mathematics (20%), General Engineering and Applied Sciences (20%) and Electronics Systems and Technology (30%).

Start the Test Yourself Exam 7

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

1. What is the term given to arranging data records in a predefined sequence or order?

  • A. Sorting
  • B. Arranging
  • C. Sequencing
  • D. Ordering
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

2. What computer language was developed for mathematical work?

  • A. MATIMATICA
  • B. BASIC
  • C. MATHTYPE
  • D. FORTRAN
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

3. What IF frequencies are normally used in radar receivers?

  • A. 30 or 60 MHz
  • B. 60 or 80 MHz
  • C. 30 or 40 MHz
  • D. 60 or 70 MHz
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

4. Mechanical rotation frequency is measured using a device called _______.

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Accelerometer
  • C. Frequency meter
  • D. Tachometer
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

5. Electrical-output frequencies of ac generators can be measured by ______.

  • A. Vibrating-reed devices or tuned circuits
  • B. Accelerometer
  • C. Frequency meter
  • D. Tachometer
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

6. Audio frequencies can be measured by a process known as ________.

  • A. Frequency counting
  • B. Beating
  • C. Zero beating
  • D. Mixing
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

7. What is another term for zero beating?

  • A. Frequency counting
  • B. Beating
  • C. Heterodyning
  • D. Mixing
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

8. What wavemeter is used for measuring frequencies in the microwave range?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Bolometer
  • D. Absorption wavemeter
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

9. What is the process of matching an unknown signal with a locally generated signal of the same frequency obtained from a calibrated high-precision oscillator?

  • A. Frequency beating
  • B. Beating
  • C. Zero beating
  • D. Mixing
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

10. What device that sweeps over a band of frequencies to determine what frequencies are being produced by a specific circuit under test and the amplitude of each frequency component?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Bolometer
  • D. Spectrum analyzer
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

11. What is commonly used for the analysis of waveforms generated by electronic equipment?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Cathode-ray oscilloscope(CRO or O-SCOPE)
  • D. Bolometer
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

12. What is device used to measure frequencies above the audio range?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Bolometer
  • D. Electronic frequency counter
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

13. What are calibrated resonant circuits used to measure frequency?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Wavemeters
  • D. Spectrum analyzer
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

14. What is the difference in frequency between the oscillator frequency and the unknown frequency?

  • A. Beat frequency
  • B. Image frequency
  • C. IF
  • D. Signal frequency
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

15. The rotation frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of a ______.

  • A. Tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Oscilloscope
  • D. Stroboscope
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

16. What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect of a slowing down or stopping motion?

  • A. Tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Oscilloscope
  • D. Stroboscope
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

17. What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure very rapid motion?

  • A. Tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Stroboscope
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

18. What is a combination of watch and revolution counter?

  • A. Chronometric tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Stroboscope
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

19. What type of bolometer is characterized by an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises?

  • A. Chronometric tachometer
  • B. Barretter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Stroboscope
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

20. What type of bolometer is characterized by decrease in resistance as the power increases?

  • A. Chronometric tachometer
  • B. Barretter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Thermistor
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

21. What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power?

  • A. Thermocouple ammeter
  • B. Barretter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Thermistor
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

22. When using strobotac, at what speed is “flicker” becomes a problem because the human eye can retain successive images long enough to create the illusion of continuous motion?

  • A. 600 rpm
  • B. 1200 rpm
  • C. 500 rpm
  • D. 300 rpm
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

23. What is the approximate life of the strobotron lamp if used at flashing speeds of less than 5,000 rpm?

  • A. 250 hours
  • B. 1200 hours
  • C. 500 hours
  • D. 300 hours
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

24. What is the approximate life of the strobotron lamp if used at flashing speeds of more than 5,000 rpm?

  • A. 250 hours
  • B. 100 hours
  • C. 500 hours
  • D. 300 hours
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

25. What are used as filters for the passage or rejection of specific frequencies?

  • A. Tuned circuits
  • B. Band pass filter
  • C. Filter circuits
  • D. High pass filter
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

26. An elementary, single coil, dc generator will have an output voltage with how many pulsations per revolution?

  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Four
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

27. How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil generator?

  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Four
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

28. How can field strength be varied in a practical dc generator?

  • A. By varying the input voltage to the field coils
  • B. By varying the output voltage to the field coils
  • C. By increasing the number of field windings
  • D. By decreasing the number of field windings
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

29. Are dc generators that are designed to act as high-gain amplifier.

  • A. Amplidynes
  • B. Dynamos
  • C. Synchros
  • D. Servos
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

30. The power output of the amplidynes may be up to ___ times larger than the power input to its control windings.

  • A. 100,000
  • B. 1,000
  • C. 10,000
  • D. 100
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

31. What generators have both series field windings and shunt field windings?

  • A. Universal generators
  • B. Series-wound dc generators
  • C. Parallel-wound dc generators
  • D. Compound-wound dc generators
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

32. The substrate of an N-channel MOSFET is made of what material?

  • A. P-type material
  • B. Intrinsic material
  • C. N-type material
  • D. Extrinsic material
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

33. In a MOSFET, which element is insulated from the channel material?

  • A. The source terminal
  • B. The gate terminal
  • C. The substrate terminal
  • D. The drain material
View Answer:

Answer: Option BC

Solution:

34. What type of MOSFET can be independently controlled by two separate signals?

  • A. The single-gate MOSFET
  • B. The four-gate MOSFET
  • C. The dual-gate MOSFET
  • D. The dual-drain MOSFET
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

35. What is the purpose of the spring or wire around the leads of a new MOSFET?

  • A. To prevent damage from static electricity
  • B. To prevent damage from dynamic electricity
  • C. To prevent damage from intense pressure
  • D. To prevent damage from intense temperature
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

36. What is a typical light-to-dark resistance ratio for photocell?

  • A. 1:1000
  • B. 1:2000
  • C. 1:10000
  • D. 1:20000
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

37. What semiconductor device produces electrical energy when exposed to light?

  • A. Photoelectronic cell
  • B. Photovoltaic cell
  • C. Photoelectric cell
  • D. Optoelectronic device
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

38. The UJT has how many PN junctions?

  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Four
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

39. The area between base 1 and base 2 in a UJT acts as what type of common circuit component?

  • A. Variable inductor
  • B. Variable resistor
  • C. Variable capacitor
  • D. Fixed resistor
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

40. The sequential rise in voltage between the two bases of the UJT is called what?

  • A. A voltage spike
  • B. A voltage peak
  • C. A voltage gradient
  • D. A voltage surge
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

41. What is the normal current path for a UJT?

  • A. From base 1 to the emitter
  • B. From base 1 to base 2
  • C. From base 2 to the emitter
  • D. From the input to output
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

42. What is one of the primary advantages of the FET when compared to the bipolar transistor?

  • A. Low input impedance
  • B. High input impedance
  • C. Low output impedance
  • D. High output impedance
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

43. The SCR is primarily used for what function?

  • A. The SCR is primarily used for amplifying
  • B. The SCR is for both switching and amplifying
  • C. The SCR is primarily used for switching power on or off
  • D. The SCR is for any electronic application
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

44. When an SCR is forward biased, what is needed to cause it to conduct?

  • A. A drain signal
  • B. A source signal
  • C. A anode signal
  • D. A gate signal
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

45. What is the only way to cause an SCR to stop conducting?

  • A. The forward bias must be reduced below the minimum conduction level
  • B. The forward bias must be increased above the minimum conduction level
  • C. The forward bias must be equal to the minimum conduction level
  • D. The reverse bias must be reduced below the minimum conduction level
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

46. The TRIAC is similar in operation to what device?

  • A. SCS
  • B. SCR
  • C. UJT
  • D. DIAC
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

47. When used for ac current control, during which alternation of the ac cycle does the TRIAC control current flow?

  • A. During both alternations
  • B. With only one alternation
  • C. During positive alternation only
  • D. During negative alternation only
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

48. What type of bias is required to cause an LED to produce light?

  • A. Forward bias
  • B. Either a of b
  • C. Reverse bias
  • D. Neither a nor b
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

49. When compared to incandescent lamps, what is the power requirement of an LED?

  • A. Very high
  • B. Very low
  • C. High
  • D. Low
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

50. The varactor displays what useful electrical property?

  • A. Variable resistance
  • B. Variable capacitance
  • C. Variable inductance
  • D. Variable frequency
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

51. When a PN junction is forward biased, what happens to the depletion region?

  • A. The depletion region decreases
  • B. The depletion region increases
  • C. The depletion region disappears
  • D. The depletion region remains the same
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

52. When the reverse bias on a varactor is increased, what happens to the effective capacitors?

  • A. Capacitance increases
  • B. Capacitance decreases
  • C. Capacitance remains the same
  • D. Temperature coefficient increases
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

53. In a reverse biased PN-junction, which current carriers cause leakage current?

  • A. The majority carriers
  • B. The minority carriers
  • C. The majority and minority carriers
  • D. Either the majority or minority carriers
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

54. The action of a PN-junction during breakdown can be explained by what two theories?

  • A. Zener effect and avalanche effect
  • B. Zener and flywheel effects
  • C. Avalanche and flywheel effects
  • D. Zener and miller effects
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

55. Which breakdown theory explains the action that takes place in a heavily doped PN-junction with a reverse bias of less than 5 volts?

  • A. Miller effect
  • B. Zener effect
  • C. Avalanche effect
  • D. Flywheel effect
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

56. In SCR, the anode current is made up of

  • A. Electrons
  • B. Holes
  • C. Electrons and holes
  • D. Positive ions
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

57. What is the most popular oscillator configuration for audio application?

  • A. Wien bridge oscillator
  • B. Hartley oscillator
  • C. Colpitt’s oscillator
  • D. Tuned oscillator
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

58. The suppressor grid is added to a tetrode to reduce what undesirable characteristic of tetrode operation?

  • A. Primary emission
  • B. Secondary emission
  • C. Tertiary emission
  • D. Quaternary emission
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

59. What type of bias requires constant current flow through the cathode circuit of a triode?

  • A. Anode biasing
  • B. Cathode biasing
  • C. Fixed biasing
  • D. Self biasing
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

60. How are computers classified?

  • A. Technology
  • B. Purpose
  • C. Data they handle
  • D. All of the choices
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

61. Mechanical computers are considered to be of what type?

  • A. Analog
  • B. Special
  • C. Digital
  • D. General
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

62. In a general-purpose computer, the ability to perform a wide variety of operations is achieved at the expense of what capabilities?

  • A. Speed and accuracy
  • B. Speed and memory capacity
  • C. Speed and efficiency
  • D. Speed and versatility
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

63. All analog computers are what type of computers?

  • A. Special-purpose
  • B. Mechanical
  • C. Electromechanical
  • D. First generation
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

64. What are analog computers deigned to measure?

  • A. Electrical quantities
  • B. Physical quantities
  • C. Natural quantities
  • D. Continuous electrical or physical conditions
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

65. Early analog computers were what type of devices?

  • A. Mechanical or electromechanical
  • B. Sold state type
  • C. Vacuum type
  • D. Electrical
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

66. What are computers called that combine the functions of both analog and digital computers?

  • A. Versatile computers
  • B. Hybrid computers
  • C. Anadigi computers
  • D. Mainframe computers
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

67. Which on is the first generation of IC op-amps?

  • A. Fair child 709
  • B. Texas instrument 709
  • C. Motorola 709
  • D. National semiconductor 709
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

68. What is the most basic type of filter?

  • A. The capacitor filter
  • B. Inductor filter
  • C. LC filter
  • D. Mechanical filter
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

69. What is the range of values usually chosen for a choke?

  • A. From 20 to 100 H
  • B. From 1 to 20 H
  • C. From 1 to 10 H
  • D. From 10 to 20 H
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

70. What is the ripple frequency of a full-wave rectifier with an input frequency of 60 Hz?

  • A. 120 Hz
  • B. 60 Hz
  • C. 240 Hz
  • D. 360 Hz
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

71. A standard programming language of the U.S. defence department similar to Pascal.

  • A. Ada
  • B. C++
  • C. BASIC
  • D. RPG
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

72. The electron tube replaces what component in an electron tube voltage regulator?

  • A. Variable inductor
  • B. Variable resistor
  • C. Variable capacitor
  • D. Transistor
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

73. Which of the following is referred to as organized data?

  • A. Source
  • B. Input
  • C. Information
  • D. Output
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

74. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an ideal differential amplifier?

  • A. Infinity
  • B. Less than unity
  • C. Unity
  • D. Zero
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

75. The type of feedback used to improve the fidelity of an amplifier and to increase its frequency response.

  • A. Fidelity feedback
  • B. Positive feedback
  • C. Unwanted feedback
  • D. Negative feedback
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

76. A negatively charge atom is sometimes called ______.

  • A. Electron
  • B. Anion
  • C. Cation
  • D. Ion
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

77. If the magnitude of the potential difference is generated by a single conductor passing through a magnetic field, which of the following statements is false?

  • A. The potential difference depends on the speed with which the conductor cuts the magnetic field
  • B. The potential difference depends on the length of the conductor that cuts the magnetic field
  • C. The potential difference depends on the magnetic field density that is present
  • D. The potential difference depends on the diameter of the conductor that cuts the magnetic field
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

78. LEDs normally work on a voltage from

  • A. 1 to 2 V
  • B. 10 to 20 V
  • C. 2 to 5 V
  • D. 3 to 6 V
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

79. Which of the following statements is true?

  • A. An ideal current source cannot be in parallel with a short circuit
  • B. An ideal voltage source can be in parallel with an open circuit
  • C. An ideal current source can be in series with an open circuit
  • D. An ideal voltage source cannot be in series with an ideal current source
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

80. What is the average power dissipated by an electric heater with resistance of 50 Ω drawing a current of 20sin (30t) A?

  • A. 0 kW
  • B. 14.14 kW
  • C. 10 kW
  • D. 20 kW
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

81. What measurements are required to determine the phase angle of a single-phase circuit?

  • A. The power in watts consumed by the circuit
  • B. The frequency, capacitance and inductance
  • C. The power in watts, voltage and current
  • D. The resistance, current and voltage
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

82. The conductance and inductive susceptance of a circuit have the same magnitude. What is the power factor of the circuit?

  • A. 1
  • B. 0.5
  • C. 0.707
  • D. 0.866
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

83. A circuit has a resonant frequency of 455 kHz and a bandwidth of 57.2 kHz. Find the Q of the circuit.

  • A. 795
  • B. 0.795
  • C. 79.5
  • D. 7.95
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

84. A semiconductor logic output which pulls neither to a high nor a low voltage state.

  • A. Logic 1
  • B. Logic 0
  • C. Floating state
  • D. Limbo
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

85. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes?

  • A. Doping process
  • B. Thermal energy
  • C. Ionization
  • D. Radiant flux
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

86. Refers to a field surrounding electrons and protons at stationary period indicating a stored energy.

  • A. Magnetic field
  • B. Electron field
  • C. Electrostatic field
  • D. Electrodynamic field
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

87. The time required to complete one cycle of a waveform.

  • A. Wavetime
  • B. Frequency
  • C. Wavelength
  • D. Period
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

88. Lines of flux that do not follow the intended path

  • A. Flux loss
  • B. Inductance leakage
  • C. Leakage flux
  • D. Hysteresis loss
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

89. What consist of elements inseparably associated and formed on a single substrate?

  • A. Micro-circuit
  • B. Module
  • C. Integrated circuit
  • D. PCB
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

90. What determines whether a substance is an insulator or a conductor?

  • A. Number of protons
  • B. Number of photons
  • C. Number of valence electrons
  • D. Number of neutrons
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

91. What do you call the space between and around charged bodies?

  • A. Magnetic field
  • B. Electromagnetic field
  • C. Electromotive field
  • D. Electrostatic field
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

92. What electrical quantity is measured by a watt-hour meter?

  • A. Current
  • B. Voltage
  • C. Energy
  • D. Power
View Answer:

Answer: Option C

Solution:

93. What do you call the process of converting chemical energy into electrical energy in a cell?

  • A. Electron flow
  • B. Polarization
  • C. Electrolysis
  • D. Electrochemical action
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

94. A transformer has 500 turns in the primary and 1500 in the secondary, assuming no losses, if 45 V is applied to the primary, what is the voltage developed in the secondary?

  • A. 13.5 V
  • B. 135 V
  • C. 180 V
  • D. 90 V
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

95. What do you call the maintenance of oscillation in a circuit in the intervals between pulses of excitation energy?

  • A. Auto-oscillation
  • B. Flywheel effect
  • C. Damping
  • D. Feedback
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

96. Which one of the following can be used to generate a pulse whenever triggered?

  • A. Flip flop
  • B. Monostable multivibrator
  • C. Stable multivibrator
  • D. Schmitt trigger
View Answer:

Answer: Option B

Solution:

97. What is energy of motion called?

  • A. Potential energy
  • B. Pneumatics
  • C. Kinematics
  • D. Kinetic energy
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

98. A fully charged lead-acid battery will indicate a specific gravity reading between ___.

  • A. 1.175 to 1.200
  • B. 1.225 to 1.250
  • C. 1.200 to 1.225
  • D. 1.275 to 1.300
View Answer:

Answer: Option D

Solution:

99. An effect about microwave oscillation that occurs in a small block of N-type gallium arsenide when a constant DC voltage above a critical value is applied to contact on opposite faces.

  • A. Gunn effect
  • B. Edison effect
  • C. Mossbauer effect
  • D. Miller effect
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

100. What is the most influential factor in the switching speed of saturated bipolar transistor?

  • A. Charge storage
  • B. hte
  • C. Collector current
  • D. hie
View Answer:

Answer: Option A

Solution:

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